A 30-year-old man with no current psychiatric medication presents with a one-week history of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, grandiosity and impulsive spending, consistent with acute mania. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological approach?
Show answer and explanation
Answer: C An antipsychotic such as olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone or haloperidol
A week of elevated mood, reduced need for sleep, grandiosity and impulsive spending meets the criteria for a manic episode. For a person not already taking an antipsychotic or mood stabiliser, NICE CG185 recommends offering an antipsychotic first: haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine or risperidone, chosen with the person, taking side effects and their preferences into account. If the first antipsychotic is poorly tolerated or ineffective at an adequate dose, offer a different one, then consider adding lithium (or valproate, avoided in women of childbearing potential). Any antidepressant should be stopped, because antidepressants can drive or prolong mania. A benzodiazepine can be used short term for agitation or sleep, but it is not the definitive treatment. Check physical health baselines before starting, such as weight, glucose, lipids, ECG where indicated and prolactin.
- Key clue
- Acute mania in a previously unmedicated patient
- What it means
- First presentation of acute mania
- What to do
- Start an antipsychotic per NICE guidance, assess safety and admission needs, and arrange specialist psychiatric follow-up
Why the other options are less appropriate
- A Psychological therapy alone does not control acute mania. Medication is needed to treat the episode safely.
- B SSRIs can trigger or worsen mania and are stopped, not started, in an acute manic episode.
- D Benzodiazepines help with agitation and sleep in the short term, but they do not treat the manic episode.
- E ECT is reserved for severe, life-threatening or treatment-resistant episodes, not as first-line treatment.
Source: NICE CG185 Bipolar disorder: assessment and management