FRCS (ORL-HNS) · SECTION 1 SBA

Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

A 16-year-old boy has recurrent unilateral epistaxis and obstruction. Imaging shows an avidly enhancing posterior nasal mass extending to the pterygopalatine fossa. What is the safest diagnostic principle?

CHOOSE ONE ANSWER

Best of five

  1. A. Use characteristic imaging and specialist skull-base assessment; avoid routine office biopsy
  2. B. Take a punch biopsy in clinic before imaging review
  3. C. Treat as allergic rhinitis because of age
  4. D. Perform simple anterior cautery only
  5. E. Start anticoagulation for recurrent epistaxis
ANSWER AND REASONING

A. Use characteristic imaging and specialist skull-base assessment; avoid routine office biopsy

The lesion may be highly vascular. In an appropriate clinical and radiological setting, unplanned biopsy can cause severe haemorrhage without improving initial management.

Why every option is right or wrong

A. Use characteristic imaging and specialist skull-base assessment; avoid routine office biopsy: The lesion may be highly vascular. In an appropriate clinical and radiological setting, unplanned biopsy can cause severe haemorrhage without improving initial management.

B. Take a punch biopsy in clinic before imaging review: This risks uncontrolled bleeding.

C. Treat as allergic rhinitis because of age: The unilateral bleeding mass requires urgent structural assessment.

D. Perform simple anterior cautery only: This does not diagnose or control the underlying lesion.

E. Start anticoagulation for recurrent epistaxis: This would increase bleeding risk.

What if the scenario changed?

If imaging suggested a non-vascular infiltrative mass, tissue diagnosis would be planned through a different controlled route.