FRCS (ORL-HNS) · SECTION 1 SBA

Paediatric lateral neck mass

A 6-year-old has a painless lateral neck cyst that becomes infected repeatedly. Ultrasound suggests a second branchial cleft anomaly. When is definitive excision best performed?

CHOOSE ONE ANSWER

Best of five

  1. A. Never excise because it is congenital
  2. B. After acute infection has settled, with tract anatomy defined
  3. C. Incise and drain every recurrence as the long-term plan
  4. D. Perform open biopsy of any cystic mass without imaging
  5. E. Treat with lifelong prophylactic antibiotics
ANSWER AND REASONING

B. After acute infection has settled, with tract anatomy defined

Operating through active infection increases tissue friability, incomplete excision and nerve injury; infection is controlled first unless airway or abscess drainage dictates otherwise.

Why every option is right or wrong

A. Never excise because it is congenital: Recurrent infection supports definitive management.

B. After acute infection has settled, with tract anatomy defined: Operating through active infection increases tissue friability, incomplete excision and nerve injury; infection is controlled first unless airway or abscess drainage dictates otherwise.

C. Incise and drain every recurrence as the long-term plan: Repeated procedures scar planes and do not remove the tract.

D. Perform open biopsy of any cystic mass without imaging: Anatomy and age-appropriate differential must be established first.

E. Treat with lifelong prophylactic antibiotics: This exposes harm without definitive correction.

What if the scenario changed?

If there were airway compromise or a mature abscess, urgent drainage and stabilisation would precede later definitive excision.

EDUCATIONAL USE

Independent Clinora preparation material; not official JCIE content, an accredited programme or a substitute for local policy and specialist judgement.

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